Discussion:
Tamil Nadu's back on top
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harmony
2006-09-12 19:18:13 UTC
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of course, there is no aryan race
Sure. There's no Sanskrit race either.
i never claimed it to be one, nor has any one else. race has never ever been
mentioned anywhere in indian epics and shashtras.
nor language, nor any group of people.
aryan is a myth created by part time linguist-missionaires working for
western politicians.
... that Indic and Iranian languages are more closely related than,
say, Indic and Romance languages is a myth? Then, why do chakra and
charka sound more similar than chakra and circle?
how the non-bharatiya cultures educated themselves from bharatiya sanskiriti
can be conjectuered upon all day long. it did not happen the other way, and
there is no proof. in fact, the proofs are now avaialble to see that
civilizational value-traffick was from bharat to outward. if eyeran chose to
retain chakra and eyetalians chose to change it to circle, it is their
choice. btw, the correct word is vartula for circle, not chakra.
M. Ranjit Mathews
2006-09-13 02:54:19 UTC
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Post by harmony
of course, there is no aryan race
Sure. There's no Sanskrit race either.
i never claimed it to be one, nor has any one else. race has never ever been
mentioned anywhere in indian epics and shashtras.
You didn't claim it; I did. That is to say that just like Sanskrit is
not a race, Aryan is not a race either.
Post by harmony
nor language, nor any group of people.
aryan is a myth created by part time linguist-missionaires working for
western politicians.
... that Indic and Iranian languages are more closely related than,
say, Indic and Romance languages is a myth? Then, why do chakra and
charka sound more similar than chakra and circle?
btw, the correct word is vartula for circle, not chakra.
Thanks; that helps me correct a mistake; the English cognate of Indic
chakra and Iranian charka is wheel, not circle. BTW, vartulaH has no
cognates in non-Indic IE languages; Dravidianists would probably claim
that a cognate of Tamil vaTTam was borrowed into Sanskrit to become
Sanskrit vartulaH (with H=visarga in nominative form).
Post by harmony
how the non-bharatiya cultures educated themselves from bharatiya sanskiriti
can be conjectuered upon all day long. it did not happen the other way, and
there is no proof.
You haven't answered the question. Why is the Persian cognate carka and
Avestan cognate cakhra very similar to Indic cakra whereas other
cognates (refer to the provided link) are not as similar?
http://indoeuro.bizland.com/project/phonetics/word25.html
Post by harmony
in fact, the proofs are now avaialble to see that
civilizational value-traffick was from bharat to outward.
Even if so, this observation has no value in resolving the point of
contention, the point being whether Aryan is a myth. That is, even
supposing that the IndoEuropean language family originated in India and
went outward, that would not make Aryan (a language subfamily) a myth.
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